### Discussion :: True Discount - General Questions (Q.No.14)

Sara said: (May 17, 2011) | |

Can you please tell in the second bracket why did you multiply 8x1 ? |

Harshitha said: (Jun 10, 2011) | |

Formula for sum=P*100/(100+(T*R) This is nothing but derivation from simple interest = (P*T*R)/100 . |

Adi said: (Aug 13, 2011) | |

Can you please explain me the solution of above question ? |

Dileep said: (Feb 1, 2012) | |

Since 8*(12/12)=8*1 8*(6/12)=8*(1/2) |

K N Chethan said: (Sep 6, 2012) | |

What is 100*702/(100+8*1/2)? |

Rohit said: (May 19, 2013) | |

Two equal half yearly installments? |

Rahul said: (Sep 29, 2013) | |

Shouldn't it be 1/2 both the times? |

Kiranmayi Paila said: (Jan 4, 2015) | |

First half year includes months i.e. 1/2 but second half early = 6+previous 6 months i.e. 1/2+1/2 = 1. |

Pavithra said: (Jan 29, 2015) | |

Can you please tell the calculation of that? |

Girish said: (Aug 2, 2015) | |

Why do we use 8 over there? |

Tejaswini said: (Aug 21, 2015) | |

Though simple interest formula is p*t*r/100 why there is complexity in calculation can you please explain it in detail? |

Niharika said: (Jun 1, 2016) | |

@Tejaswini. S.I = p * t * r/100. A = P + S.I. = P + P * T * R/100. = P(1 + T * R/100). = P(100 + T*R/100). So, P = (100 * A/100 + T * R). |

Ramesh said: (Jul 19, 2016) | |

Why the interest can't be 4% each time? |

Bhavani said: (Jan 23, 2017) | |

May, I know how 675 came? |

Bhavani said: (Jan 23, 2017) | |

Can anyone explain how the calculation is done? |

Srishti said: (Jan 9, 2018) | |

What is the formula used here? Please tell me. |

Srishti said: (Jan 9, 2018) | |

Why 1yr is used in second bracket? |

Vikas said: (Jan 12, 2018) | |

Yeah, it should be 1/2 even in the second bracket I guess because it is the equal half yearly basis. |

Sravani said: (Mar 12, 2018) | |

hi, In the above problem first half-yearly 702 and second half yearly 702+first half yearly i.e., 1year so in the second bracket, it is taken as one year. A=p+S.I. A=P+(PTR/100), A=P(1+TR/100), SO Coming To The Problem, for first half-yearly, (100*702/100+8*1/2), For second Half Yearly, (100*702/100+8*1). |

Rajesh said: (May 16, 2018) | |

Since it is in SI, only that interest part will be added in each 6 months. So, what is the need for 1year in the second part? |

Anonymous said: (Jul 8, 2018) | |

Why second time we take only 702 if we consider time as 1 year? |

Pavan G J said: (Aug 21, 2020) | |

See, first 702rs pw is calculated for 6 months and second 702rs pw is calculated for 1 year because 6months + 6months = 1year i.e., we have to calculate the present worth in present the question is like divide the sum by 2 and calculate the pw of firtst half in 6 months and pw for 2nd half for 6 months. For 2nd half we should consider 1year because when you think wrt pw it becomes 1year. Hope all of you can get. |

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